Answer: C
2. Which logical component of a storage environment is host resident? A. Memory B. Port C. Disk
D. File System
Answer: D
3. A customer requires a local replica of a database that must remain available on a 24*7 basis. The application consistent replica of the file system, which operation should be performed?
A. Stop the application prior to the creation of the replica
B. Quiesce and flush the file system buffers before the creation the replica C. Unmount the file system prior to the creation of the replica
D. Quiesce and flush the file system buffers after the creation of the replica
Answer: B
4. What is an advantage of reporting on storage arrays? A. Planning for storage group B. Monitoring number of arrays C. Planning for capacity
D. Monitoring number of disks in a RAID group
Answer: C
5. What is the sequence of steps in a business continuity planning process? 1. Perform risk analysis
2. Collect data on various business processes 3. Test, train and maintain
4. Develop a disaster recovery plan A. 3-4-1-2 B. 2-3-1-4 C. 2-1-4-3 D. 3-2-1-4
Answer: C
6. What does a pull operation in SAN based remote replication indicate? A. Data is pulled to one remote array from another remote array B. Data is pulled to the control array from remote array
C. Data is pulled to one control array from another control array D. Data is pulled to the remote array from control array
Answer: B
7. A customer wants to deploy business continuity solution between to data center which are 500 Km apart Which solution want to connectivity between the two FC-SANs in the most cost-effective way? A. IP switches communicating over TCP B. FC switches communicating over FCP C. Native iSCSI communicating over TCP/IP D. FCIP gateways communicating over TCP/IP
Answer: D
8. In full volume mirroring when is the target accessible? A. Only after synchronization and detached from source
B. Only before initial synchronization and detached from source C. Only before initial synchronization and attached to source D. Only after synchronization and attached to source
Answer: A
9. How many devices can be connected to a storage array in a point-to-point configuration? A. 2
B. Depends upon number of array ports C. 15 million devices D. 127
Answer: A
10. How many domain ids are reserved in fibre channel address space? A. 16 B. 239 C. 256 D. 17
Answer: B
11. What is a feature of pointer-based virtual replication? A. Source need not be healthy for restore
B. Reduction in storage requirement for the replicas
C. Replica can not hold more than 30% of the changed data D. Source can not hold more than 30% of the changed data
Answer: B (P87)
12. How does asynchronous remote replication improve application performance compared to synchronous remote replications? A. Reads are serviced by the remote replica B. Reads are serviced by the source
C. Writes are acknowledged immediately by the remote replica D. Writes are acknowledged immediately by the source
Answer: D
13. Which describes a feature of internal DAS? A. Local storage provisioning B. High CPU utilization C. High scalability
D. Array based management
Answer: B
14. In an intelligent disk system, what is the role of the back-end? A. To move data between a host and the array cache B. To communicate between Tag RAM and data store C. To communicate between a host and the storage system D. To move data between an array cache and the disks
Answer: D
15. Which RAID type is most suitable for an application with large sequential reads? A. RAID 5 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 1 D. RAID 0
Answer: B (P18)
16. Which three subject areas taken together define storage security? A. Access control, information security, and networking B. Access control, encryption, and networking C. Encryption, networking, and storage
D. Information security, networking, and storage
Answer: D
17. A business wants to backup 1 TB of data containing 100,000 files and another 1TB of data containing 1 million files. Which write need more time ? A. Number of files is irrelevant B. Both will take same time C. 1 million files D. 100,000 files
Answer: D
18. What are five core elements of a data center infrastructure?
A. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating System, SAN, and JBOD B. Applications, Databases, JBOD ,Networks, and Storage Arrays C. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating System, DAN, and NAS
D. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating System, Networks, and Storage
Arrays
Answer: D
19. What is a characteristic of parity-based RAID?
A. Parity is updated each time when both read and write are performed B. Parity is read each time a read is performed C. Parity is updated each time a write is performed D. Parity is updated only when writes fill a stripe
Answer: C
20. What is the data access pattern that is most affect by slow seek times? A. Random, small writes B. Sequential, small reads C. Random, large reads D. Sequential, large writes
Answer: A
21. Which term refers to the writing of physical address information to a disk? A. Striping B. Partitioning
C. File system mounting D. Formatting
Answer: D
22. A customer complains about frequent traffic disruptions to their SAN. After analysis, it was found that the R&D group was created a application traffic while testing new products. What would you suggest that this customer implement? A. Server Virtualization B. Virtual SAN
C. Storage virtualization D. Virtual LAN
Answer: B
23. Which statement is true about C-Clip?
A. A virtual package that contains mete-data and BLOB B. A virtual package that contains CDF and BLOB C. A virtual package that contains CA and BLOB
D. A virtual package that contains C-Clip ID and BLOB
Answer: A
24. How can the exposure to loss of uncommitted cached data be minimized? A. Write-back B. Watermarking C. Write-through D. Cache bypassing
Answer: C
25. Which business continuance solution will enable the minimum RTO? A. Using tape restore at a hot site B. Clustered production servers C. Using a data vault to a host site
D. Using periodic replication at a hot site
Answer: B
26. An application uses ten 9 GB Devices. A pointer based replica of the application is required every 4 hours. Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. The data changes by 10% every 4 hours. How many replica devices are required? A. 90 B. 60 C. 120 D. 6
Answer: B
27. What does SAN security architecture recommend? A. Multiple integrated layers of security B. Single integrated solution for security C. Multiple isolated layers of security D. Multiple isolated solutions for security
Answer: D
28. Which NAS solution is the easiest to deploy in an existing EMC SAN environment?
A. Bridged NAS with iSCSI technology B. Gateway NAS system solution
C. Integrated NAS system with iSCSI technology D. Integrated NAS system solution
Answer: B
29. In the diagram, which zone(s) represent hard zone? A. Zone 2
B. Zone 1 and 3 C. Zone 3 D. Zone 1
Answer: A
30. What is one reason a company might choose to deploy NAS? A. For array managed data security B. For host managed storage volumes C. To obtain content addressed storage
D. To support a heterogeneous operation environment
Answer: D
31. What monitoring characteristic per you to assess the risk of failure of FC Switch ports before the ports actually fail? A. Performance B. Accessbility C. Capacity D. Security
Answer: B
32. Consider a disk I/O system in which an I/O request arrives at a rate of 100 IOPS and the service time is 4 ms. What is the utilization? A. 80% B. 4% C. 10% D. 40%
Answer: D U = a × RS
33. A customer with a SAN environment is primarily concerned about cabling flexibility. For this customer, which zoning method should be used? A. Mixed zoning B. Port zoning C. Hard zoning D. WWN zoning
Answer: D
34. An application uses ten 20 GB Devices. A pointer based replica of the application is required. The replica will be kept for 24 hours. The data changes by 20% every 24 hours. How much storage should be allocated for the A. 40GB B. 200 GB C. 20 GB D. 4 GB
Answer: A
35. In the context of protecting the FC storage infrastructure, what is an example of infrastructure integrity?
A. Preventing node login to the fabric without proper authorization B. Implementing iSNS discovery domains C. Not permitting physical access to the nodes
D. Improving the FSPF algorithm to determine to isolated nodes
Answer: A
36. What attribute other than individual identity or group membership can be used to restrict access in the context of information security? A. Host network address B. HBA World Wide Name C. Role
D. Shared passwords
Answer: C
37. What is the requirement for native iSCSI implementation? A. Host with NIC and array with FCIP port B. Host with iSCSI HBA and array with FC port C. Host with ToE card and array with iSCSI port
D. Host with software iSCSI initiator and array with FCIP port
Answer: C
38. What does a cache dirty page indicate?
A. Data requested by host but not yet fetched
B. Data read from disk but not accessed by the host C. Data that has changed but is not yet written to disk D. Data that has changed and has been written to disk
Answer: C
39. What is the failure that RAID technology guards against? A. Switch failure B. Disk failure
C. Host Bus adapter failures D. Host failures
Answer: B
40. Which service is used by iSCSI initiator to discover targets? A. Internet storage name service B. Storage internet name sevice C. Domain name service
D. Network information service
Answer: A
41. What is the function of FC-1 layer in the Fibre Channel protocol? A. Interface mapping
B. Routing and flow control C. Transmission of raw bits D. Encoding and decoding
Answer: D (P45)
42. What is the operating environment for EMC CLARiiON? A. Access Logix B. Enginuity C. FLARE D. EMC Linux
Answer: C
43. What is the operating systemd of Celerra Control Station? A. Data access at real time B. Centra Star C. Windows CE D. Linux
Answer: A (P86)
44. To what does a redundant array of independent node architecture refer? A. Technology independent object storage network B. Cluster storage and access node network C. Data independent storage and host network D. Location independent storage network
Answer: B
45. Which statement best applies to a Fibre Channel SAN? A. Multi-purpose client-server network B. Dedicated storage network
C. Global interconnectivity network D. Multi-protocol storage network
Answer: B
46. Which feature assures that the stored content has NOT been altered in the CAS system?
A. Single instance storage B. Content integrity C. Content authenticity D. Content Security
Answer: B (P180)
47. Which protocol implementation is used in a Fibre Channel SAN? A. SCSI over FC B. FC over SCSI
C. FC over Serial Attached SCSI D. FC over iSCSI
Answer: A
48. What describes the sustained internal transfer rate of disk drives? A. It is the speed at which data moves from read/write head to platter B. It is the speed at which data moves from a track to internal buffer C. It is the advertised speed of the interface
D. It is the speed at which data moves from platter to read/write head
Answer: B
49. Which is used as backup media in virtual tape library? A. Optical disks B. Tapes
C. Virtual tapes D. Disks
Answer: D
50. What is an advantage of using disk over tape when selecting a backup destination device?
A. Better portability B. Quicker restores
C. Higher acquisition cost D. Better RPO
Answer: B
51. Which management task eliminates single points of failure in a data center? A. Capacity B. Availability C. Performance D. Security
Answer: B
52. Which one of the following is NOT an example of Storage Virtualization? A. CHS to LBA addressing B. LUN creation C. Virtual machines
D. Host based volume management
Answer: C
53. What is the Reserved LUN Pool in EMC CLARiiON SnapView replication? A. LUNs that can hold COFW data
B. LUNs that are reserved for use by a specific host C. LUNs that can be used as hot spares D. LUNs that are not assigned a RAID type
Answer: A
54. What should be considered when determining the optimal size of the log file in host based log shipping remote replication? A. Size of the standby database B. Size of the source database C. Frequency of log switching
D. Frequency of accessing database
Answer: C
55. Which protection strategy can be applied to the security zone containing switches and routers?
A. Implementing secured remote access B. Masking based on source FCID
C. Use two factor authentication for network access D. Using E port authentication for access
Answer: D
56. Which data center element organizes customer and product information? A. Server
B. Storage array C. Operating System D. DBMS
Answer: A
57. Which mechanisms address threats to the application access domain by elevation of user privileges?
A. Access control to storage objects and Access Control Lists(ACLs) B. Access control to storage objects and Storage access monitoring C. User authentication and information Rights Management(IRM) D. User authentication and user authorization
Answer: A
58. Which EMC Control Center component holds information about managed objects? A. Agent B. Store
C. Repository D. Server
Answer: C
59. What is the sequence of steps in NAS I/O? 1. Storage array processes the request
2. NAS device converts file I/O to block I/O 3. File I/O request by client
4. NAS device forwards the file to the client
A. 2-1-4-3 B. 2-1-3-4 C. 3-2-1-4 D. 3-1-4-2
Answer: C
60. What is the maximum payload in a fibre channel frame? A. 2136 bytes B. 2048 bytes C. 2148 bytes D. 2112 bytes
Answer: D
61. Which remote replication solution has the lowest bandwidth requirement? A. Array based synchronous replication B. Host-based LVM Mirroring C. Log shipping over IP networks D. Asynchronous ordered writes
Answer: C
62. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping
Answer: B
63. Which Data Center element stores customer and product information when the server is connected to an array? A. Application B. Database C. Server
D. Storage Array
Answer: B
64. What does a cache dirty bit flag?
A. Changed data not yet written to disk B. Changed data written to disk
C. Data read from disk but not accessed by the host D. Data requested by host but not yet fetched
Answer: A
65. Which component of EMC ControlCenter holds the information collected about the Managed Objects? A. Agent B. Repository C. Server D. Store
Answer: B
66. Which remote replication solution has the highest bandwidth requirements? A. Array based synchronous replication B. Asynchronous ordered writes C. Log shipping over IP networks
D. Host based asynchronous LVM Mirroring
Answer: A
67. Which remote replication solution has the lowest bandwidth requirement? A. Array based synchronous replication B. Asynchronous ordered writes C. Host based LVM Mirroring D. Log shipping over IP networks
Answer: D
68. What are the five core elements of the data center infrastructure? A. Applications, Databases, JBOD, Networks, Storage Arrays
B. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, DAS, NAS
C. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, Networks, Storage Arrays
D. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, SAN, JBOD
Answer: C
69. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create
extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours
Answer: B
70. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping
Answer: B
71. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster?
A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost
Answer: D
72. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed? A. Hard Zoning B. Mixed Zoning C. Port Zoning D. WWN Zoning
Answer: D
73. Which Data Center element stores customer and product information when the server is connected to an array? A. Application B. Database C. Server
D. Storage Array
Answer: B
74. What do you monitor as part of server performance? A. File system utilization B. HBA status
C. Memory utilization D. Power supply status
Answer: C
75. What best describes a Fibre Channel SAN? A. Dedicated storage network
B. Global interconnectivity network C. Multi-protocol storage network D. Multipurpose system network
Answer: A
76. Which aspect of monitoring will allow you to predict the possible failure of FC Switch ports before the ports actually fail? A. Capacity B. Health
C. Performance D. Security
Answer: C
77. What are the three key data center management activities that are interdependent? A. Installation, Configuration, Problem Solving B. Manageability, Integrity, Cost
C. Provisioning, Monitoring, Reporting D. Scalability, Accessibility, Security
Answer: C
78. Which Celerra component is used to manage and configure the NAS solution? A. Control Station B. Data Mover
C. Disk Array Enclosure D. Storage Processor
Answer: A
79. What is a reason for implementing single HBA zoning? A. Increases PLOGI efficiency
B. Minimizes impact to nodes after an RSCN
C. Prevents host from seeing the same volumes via multiple HBAs D. Reduces the number of zones required in the SAN
Answer: B
80. What does a cache dirty bit flag?
A. Changed data not yet written to disk B. Changed data written to disk
C. Data read from disk but not accessed by the host D. Data requested by host but not yet fetched
Answer: A
81. Which component in an EMC Symmetrix Array provides physical connectivity to hosts?
A. Back-end adapter B. Cache
C. Front-end adapter D. Storage Processor
Answer: C
82. Which feature applies only to an integrated NAS device? A. Allows external hosts access to storage devices B. Manages storage devices via array software C. Manages storage devices via NAS software
D. Utilizes external switch access to storage devices
Answer: C
83. Why do array based local replication technologies track changes made to source and target devices after the creation of a replica? A. For faster initial synchronization B. For faster re-synchronization C. To allow multiple replicas
D. To lower Recovery Time Objective
Answer: B
84. What is a role of the backup server in a backup and recovery environment? A. Gathers data for backup
B. Maintains the backup catalog
C. Retrieves metadata from the storage node D. Writes the data set to the backup device
Answer: B
85. A Copy on First Access target is being used for decision support operations. When is data copied from the source to the target?
A. A read issued for the first time from a location on the source B. A read or write issued for the first time to a location on the target C. All I/Os issued to a location on the target D. All writes issued to a location on the target
Answer: B
86. Which component of EMC ControlCenter holds the information collected about the Managed Objects? A. Agent B. Repository C. Server D. Store
Answer: B
87. A pointer based replica has been created. Source devices are being used for
production operations. When is data copied from the source to the save location? A. All reads from a location on the source B. All writes to a location on the source C. First read from a location on the source D. First write to a location on the source
Answer: D
88. Which remote replication solution has the highest bandwidth requirements? A. Array based synchronous replication B. Asynchronous ordered writes C. Log shipping over IP networks
D. Host based asynchronous LVM Mirroring
Answer: A
89. Which statement applies to NAS?
A. General purpose server for block level access B. General purpose server for content addressed data C. Specialized server for block level data access D. Specialized server for content addressed data
Answer: C
90. What is a set of CLARiiON disks used to provide storage space to a host? A. Disk Array Enclosure B. Disk Processor Enclosure C. Logical Unit Number D. RAID Group
Answer: D
91. Which cache algorithm minimizes the time the host waits for data to be fetched from the storage system? A. Least Recently Used B. Read Ahead
C. Write-back cache D. Write-through cache
Answer: B
92. An application uses ten 9 GB Devices. A pointer based replica of the application is required every 4 hours. Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. The data changes by 10% every 4 hours. How many replica devices are required? A. 6 B. 10 C. 60 D. 90
Answer: C
93. You have a backup and recovery solution in your environment. Several tapes are available. You want to use different tapes for each set of backup clients. Which backup component do you configure? A. Catalog B. Group C. Pool
D. Storage Node
Answer: C
94. A local replica of a database is required. Business requirements demand that the database be available 24x7. Which operation should be performed to ensure a consistent replica of the database?
A. Hold I/O to the source devices immediately after the creation of the replica B. Hold I/Os to the replica devices just before the creation of the replica C. Hold I/Os to the source devices just before the creation of the replica D. Shutdown database just before the creation of the replica
Answer: C
95. A company has two SAN islands approximately one mile apart. The company wants to create a single fabric over its public WAN connection. Which protocol is recommended to connect the sites? A. FCIP B. FCP C. iFCP D. iSCSI
Answer: A
96. What is a purpose of iSNS?
A. To assist with discovery of iSCSI targets
B. To implement TCP offload for better bandwidth
C. To translate EUI-format names into iQN-format names D. To translate iQN-format names into EUI-format names
Answer: A
97. Which data access pattern will have its performance affected most by slow seek times?
A. Random, large reads B. Random, small writes C. Sequential, large writes D. Sequential, small reads
Answer: B
98. Which aspect of monitoring will allow you quickly respond to the failure of a Host Bus Adapter (HBA)? A. Capacity B. Health
C. Performance D. Security
Answer: B
99. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create
extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours
Answer: B
100. Which remote replication solution has the lowest bandwidth requirement? A. Array based synchronous replication B. Asynchronous ordered writes C. Host based LVM Mirroring D. Log shipping over IP networks
Answer: D 101. Which statement describes the choice of cylinders used in a partition? A. Cylinders must be contiguous and from different zones B. Cylinders must be contiguous and may be in the same zone C. Cylinders must be non-contiguous and from different zones D. Cylinders must be non-contiguous if they are in the same zone
Answer: B
102. An application uses a file system. A local replica of the application is required. Business requirements demand that the application be available on a 24x7 basis. Which operation should be performed for a consistent file system replica?
A. Flush file system buffers after the creation of the replica B. Flush file system buffers before the creation the replica C. Stop the application prior to the creation of the replica D. Unmount the file system prior to the creation of the replica
Answer: B 103. What are the five core elements of the data center infrastructure? A. Applications, Databases, JBOD, Networks, Storage Arrays
B. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, DAS, NAS
C. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, Networks, Storage Arrays
D. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, SAN, JBOD
Answer: C 104. Which sequence of activities describes a read cache hit? 1. Read data is sent to the host
2. Host sends read request to storage system 3. Cache is searched, and data is found
A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 3, 2 C. 2, 3, 1 D. 3, 1, 2
Answer: C 105. An application uses ten 10 GB Devices. A pointer based replica of the application is required. The replica will be kept for 24 hours. The data changes by 20% every 24 hours. How much storage should be allocated for the replication? A. 2 GB B. 10 GB C. 20 GB D. 100 GB
Answer: C
106. What is the size of the unique Content Address when the CAS stores a data object? A. 16 bit B. 32 bit C. 64 bit D. 128 bit
Answer: D 107. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 2 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster?
A. No more than 2 hours of production data can be lost B. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost
C. Time to resume production operations must be no more than 2 hours D. Time to resume production operations must be no more than 4 hours
Answer: A 108. Which component in an EMC Symmetrix Array handles physical disk I/O operations?
A. Back-end adapter B. Cache
C. Front-end adapter D. Storage Processor
Answer: A 109. You must create a chargeback system for cost recovery in the IT department. Which activity supports this goal? A. Capacity planning B. Monitoring C. Provisioning D. Reporting
Answer: D 110. What does a Domain ID identify? A. A management server within a fabric B. A primary server within a fabric C. A storage array within a fabric D. A switch within a fabric
Answer: D
111. Which statement accurately describes parity-based RAID? A. Parity is read each time a read is performed B. Parity is updated only when a full stripe is read C. Parity is updated each time a write is performed D. Parity is updated only when writes fill a stripe
Answer: C 112. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems?
A. MirrorView/A B. SnapView C. SRDF/AR D. TimeFinder Answer: A
113. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability? A. CSMA/CD
B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop C. Store and Forward D. Switched Fabric Answer: B
114. Click on the Exhibit button. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit.
A. 1 and 6 B. 4 and 5 C. 7 and 5 D. 6 and 3 Answer: A
115. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping Answer: B
116. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster?
A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost Answer: D
117. Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data? A. CAS B. DAS C. NAS D. SAN Answer: A
118. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed? A. Hard Zoning B. Mixed Zoning C. Port Zoning D. WWN Zoning Answer: D
119. A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk?
A. 0 - 49,999 B. 0 - 99,999 C. 1 - 50,000 D. 1 - 100,000 Answer: B
120. Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7? A. Availability B. Manageability C. Performance D. Scalability Answer: A
121. What is the protocol used by a Windows client to communicate with a NAS device? A. CIFS B. FCP C. NFS D. SCSI Answer: A
122. What are two parts of cache? A. Bitmap store and dirty store B. Data store and bitmap store C. Data store and tag RAM D. Tag RAM and dirty store Answer: C
123. Which Data Center element stores customer and product information when the server is connected to an array? A. Application B. Database C. Server
D. Storage Array Answer: B
124. What do you monitor as part of server performance? A. Filesystem utilization B. HBA status
C. Memory utilization D. Power supply status Answer: C
125. Which EMC Celerra component allows management of volumes and filesystems?
A. Control Station B. Data Mover
C. Disk Array Enclosure D. Storage Processor Answer: A
126. What is the role of a bus?
A. Control point for all host activities and resources B. Device for storing data
C. High speed interconnect between CPU, memory, and disks D. Temporary location for commands and data Answer: C
**********************************************************************
Test for Each Section:
Section 1
1. What are the two [2] primary reasons why businesses collect and store data over long periods of time?
A. Availability of high capacity storage systems B. Availability of high performance servers C. Potential for new business initiatives D. Regulations and compliance
Answer: C D
2. What are two [2] advantages of Centralized Networked Storage? A. Consolidated data storage and retrieval B. Islands of data
C. Multiple dedicated Storage Arrays
D. Sharing of storage resources and data between different departments in an
organization.
Answer: A D
3. Which core element of a data center infrastructure provides the data communication paths between clients and servers? A. Databases B. Networks
C. Servers/ Operating Systems D. Storage Arrays
Answer: B
4. Which key requirement of storage systems refers to the ability of the storage solution to grow with the business? A. Availability B. Capacity
C. Data Integrity D. Scalability
Answer: D
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
What is Read Hit Ratio?
A. Number of miss with respect to total read request B. Number of hits with respect to total write request C. Number of hits with respect to total read request D. Number of miss with respect to total write request
Answer: C
What provides the communication path between the CPU and other peripheral components within a host? A. Bus
B. I/O devices
C. Network Interface Card (NIC) D. Parallel Port
Answer: A
In which unit is Bus width measured? A. Bits B. Bytes C. MB/sec D. MHz
Answer: A
All of the following are physical components of host EXCEPT: A. Bus B. CPU
C. Databases D. Memory
Answer: C
What two [2] factors or conditions determine the storage capacity of a Head Disk Assembly (HDA)?
A. The amount of data that can be stored on each platter B. The cache size of the platters
C. The connectivity of platters to the HAD D. The number of platters
Answer: A D
10. What did the acronym RAID initially refer to before it was altered to reflect advances in technology?
A. Redundant Array of Independent Disks B. Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks C. Redundant Array of Integral Disks
D. Redundant Array of Interconnected Disks
Answer: B
11. What is another term for the logical array of disk subsets within a RAID array? A. Physical arrays B. RAID controller C. RAID database D. RAID set
Answer: D
12. What is the main benefit of data striping?
A. Independent disks allow multiple reads and writes to take place
simultaneously
B. Improves security by creating multiple identical copies of data C. More efficient allocation of sequential reading/writing D. None of the above
Answer: A
13. What is the term for and idle component in a RAID array that becomes a temporary replacement for a failed component? A. Hot disk B. Hot spare C. Hot swap
D. RAID controller
Answer: B
14. What is the role of the front end in an intelligent storage system?
A. It improves system performance by isolating disks from the mechanical delays
associated with physical disks
B. It is where the storage actually takes place
C. It provides the connectivity from host to the storage array
D. It provides the communication with the disks for read and write operations
Answer: C
15. Which component of an intelligent storage system may improve performance of reads and writes? A. Back End B. Cache C. Host
D. Physical Disks
Answer: B
Section 2
1. Which logical element of CAS is a set of function calls that enable
communication between applications, or between an application and an operating system?
A. Application Programming Interface (API) B. Content Address (CA) C. Metadata D. Server
Answer: A
2. What is the CAS benefit that completely insulates the client application from
the physical location of the content? A. Optimized TCO
B. Single instance storage C. Technology independence D. Location independence
Answer: D
3. What is the term for the virtual space in which all storage nodes communicate
with each other over distances? A. Fabric
B. Fibre Channel C. Loop D. Port
Answer: A
4. Which block storage over IP protocol uses tunneling involving a pair of
bridges with Fibre Channel that uses IP as the transport protocol? A. FC B. FCIP C. iSCSI D. SCSI
Answer: B
5. Which topology for IP SAN allows for the Initiators to exist in an Ethernet
environment while the storage remains in a Fibre Channel SAN? A. Extension B. Native C. Reduction D. Bridging
Answer: D
6. What is the term for any device that is connected to the SAN for purposes of
requesting or supplying data? A. Fiber
B. Host Bus Adapter C. Node D. Ports
Answer: C
7. Why is multimode fiber (MMF) transmission typically used only for relatively
short distances?
A. Optical fiber cables are only available in short sizes due to manufacturing
constraints
B. The cost rises with the distance
C. The Optical signal strength tends to degrade, through modal dispersion,
over greater distances
D. There is less bounce and thus the light does not disperse as easily
Answer: C
8. All of the following are benefits of a Direct Attached Storage (DAS) system
EXCEPT:
A. Scalable Connectivity
B. Ideal for local data provisioning C. Low complexity D. Reliability
Answer: A
9. Which industry standard protocol is used to connect to and manage physical
disk storage resources in a NAS device? A. DART (Data Access in Real Time) B. Data ONTAP C. Fibre Channel D. All of the above
Answer: C
10. What is an example of virtual memory?
A. Disk Drive B. Cache C. Swap files D. RAM
Answer: C
11. In the context of virtual memory, what is a swap file?
A. Reserved address space in memory
B. Very fast memory for critical applications C. A portion of a physical disk D. RAM
Answer: C
12. What is a function of block-level storage virtualization?
A. To abstract multiple physical network as one logical network B. To abstract multiple operating system as one operating system C. To abstract multiple physical array as a single target device D. To abstract multiple file system as one file server
Answer: C
13. What are the two benefits of Virtual Provisioning?
A. Reduce storage costs B. Reduce network traffic C. Reduce operating cost D. Reduce storage traffic
Answer: A C
14. Which one of the following is the cost effective approach to handling internet
era data growth?
A. Thin-Client Computing B. Server Virtualization C. Storage Virtualization D. Cloud Computing
Answer: D
15. Which enables presenting a logical unit, to a host, with more capacity than is
physically allocated to it one the storage array? A. Server Virtualization B. Thin provisioning C. Storage virtualization D. File virtualization
Answer: B
Section 3
1. What is a Backup?
A. A copy of data that can be used for testing purposes without risking
production data?
B. A set of instructions to recover missing data elements
C. An additional copy of data that can be used for restore and recover
purposes
D. The data that is held in storage cache at any one point in time
Answer: C
2. What are the three basis backup topologies?
A. Direct Attached based, CAS based and SAN based B. Direct Attached based, LAN based and NAS based C. Direct Attached based, LAN based and SAN based D. Direct Attached based, NAS based and SAN based
Answer: C
3. What does the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) define?
A. The amount of data loss that a business can endure after an outage B. The amount or number of applications that are mission critical for a
business to restore after an outage
C. The period of time by which systems and applications must be recovered
after an outage
D. The period to time needed to detect a fault and determine its cause
Answer: C
4. What is Disaster Recovery process?
A. Estimating the amount of data loss after a disaster
B. The process of restarting mirror consistent copies of data and applications C. The process of restoring a previous copy of data to a known point of
consistency
D. The process required for an application to resume after a power failure
Answer: C
5. How do Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Differ?
A. Business continuity focuses on prevention; Disaster Recover focuses on
restoring business operations
B. Business Continuity focuses on prevention; Disaster Recovery focuses
mitigating risks
C. Disaster Recovery includes Business Continuity; and not the reverse D. Disaster Recovery involves planning, preparing for and recovering from
an adverse event; Business Continuity focuses on supporting business operations after an adverse event
Answer: A
6. All of these are possible uses of local replicas EXCEPT:
A. Application Restart B. Data Recovery
C. Long term Archiving solution D. Report generation
Answer: C
7. What is a key advantage of Copy on First Access (COFA) compared to
Full Volume Replication?
A. COFA replicas are immediately accessible whereas Full Volume replicas
have to wait for Synchronization to complete
B. COFA replicas can be smaller in size than Full Volume replicas
C. COFA replicas can track changes whereas Full Volume replica cannot D. COFA replicas will complete faster than Full Volume replica
Answer: A
8. What is a key advantage of Copy on First Write (COFW) replication
compared to Copy on First Access (COFA) replication?
A. COFW replica can be used even when the source device has failed,
whereas COFA replica is rendered useless if the source device fails B. COFW replica is immediately accessible whereas COFA replica is not
immediately accessible
C. COFW replica typically requires smaller space than COFA replica D. COFW replica copies data when the target is read, whereas COFA
replication copies data does not
Answer: C
9. What are replicated is storage array based remote replication?
A. I/O to source devices
B. Reads from source devices C. Writes to target devices D. Writhes to source devices
Answer: D
10. What is the effect of a SRDF split operation?
A. Makes target volumes Read Write and source volumes Read only B. Enable read and write operations on both source and target volumes C. Retains data from source and overwrites any changed data on target D. Retain data on target and overwrites any changed data on source
Answer: B
11. In which situations is MirrorView/A an appropriate solution?
A. Cost of recovery is less important than speed of a recovery B. Local and remote data have t be the same at all times C. No data loss is acceptable after a disaster D. Some data loss is acceptable after a disaster
Answer: D
12. Which of the following is true about Synchronous Remote Replication?
A. No response time elongation B. Rarely deployed beyond 200kms
C. Sufficient bandwidth is not required at all time
D. Data must be transmitted to target site after write can be acknowledged
Answer: B
13. In a SAN based remote replication what does pull operation mean?
A. Data is pulled from one remote array to another remote array B. Data is pulled from remote array to control array C. Data is pulled from control array to remote array
D. Data is pulled from one control array to another control array
Answer: B
14. In Asynchronous remote replication how consistency is ensured?
A. Both the replicas always same no need for consistency
B. Data must be transmitted to target site after write can be acknowledged C. Data must be transmitted to target site before write can be acknowledged D. Maintaining write ordering
Answer: D
15. How consistency can be achieved when the file system in online?
A. Un-mount file system B. Mount file system C. Flush host buffers D. Flush array buffers
Answer: C
Section 4
1. In the context of risk triad diagram, what are the two [2] actions an
organization can take to secure the storage infrastructure? A. Eliminate information assets B. Repair vulnerabilities C. Eliminate threat agents D. Install countermeasures
Answer: B D
2. What are the four primary services a security framework must ensure?
A. Security , Integrity, Availability, Accountability
B. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability, Accountability C. Security, Integrity, Accountability, Stability
D. Capability, Security, Accountability, Vulnerability
Answer: B
3. In vulnerability, which will jeopardize due to loss of device?
A. Confidentiality B. Integrity C. Availability D. Accountability
Answer: C
4. In the context of vulnerabilities in a storage network, what does the attack
surface describe?
A. The chain of vulnerabilities B. The available interfaces
C. The amount of effort required to exploit a vulnerability D. The effort required to attack a database
Answer: B
5. What two [2] mechanisms can be used to obtain unauthorized administrator
access?
A. Network sniffing
B. Spoofing user identity C. Data snooping
D. Elevation of user privilege
Answer: B D
6. In protecting secondary storage and replication infrastructure, what are the
three controls available? A. Backup encryption
B. Replication network encryption C. Networking snooping
D. Primary to Secondary Storage Access Control
Answer: A B D
7. Which concepts recommend multiple layers of security?
A. DOD algorithm B. Defense-in-depth C. LUN masking D. Zoning
Answer: B
8. Which security mechanism prevents a switch port from being enabled, even
after a switch reboot? A. Port Binding B. Port Lockdown C. Port Lockout
D. Persistent Port Disable
Answer: D
9. Which of the following divides a physical topology into logical fabrics?
A. VLAN B. VMAN C. VSAN D. VWAN
Answer: C
10. What are two [2] reasons for monitoring data center components?
A. To ensure that business critical applications are operational and optimized B. To ensure that no data is lost if there is disaster or service disruption C. To ensure that the IT support staff are meeting all service level
agreements requirements
D. To ensure the components are functioning properly and are available 24*7
Answer: A D
11. What are two [2] key metrics for server performance?
A. Bandwidth utilization B. Bus utilization C. CPU utilization D. Memory utilization
Answer: C D
12. What is metric that could be used as part of Monitoring Performance?
A. Login failures
B. Number of I/Os to disks in a storage array C. Number of replication task failures
D. Number of used and free ports on different switches
Answer: B
13. Which specifies that which user can have access to which device in a fabric?
A. Access control list B. Fabric binding C. Zoning D. RBAC
Answer: D
14. Which category of data center management ensures business continuity by
eliminating single points of failure? A. Availability Management B. Capacity Management C. Performance Management D. Security Management
Answer: A
15. All of the following are individual tasks handled by the HOST during the
process of allocating storage to a new server in an existing SAN environment EXCEPT:
A. Assignment of new volumes to array front end ports B. Configuring HBAs on a new server C. File System Management D. Volume Management
Answer: A
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